Lesson 18 of 18 · about 45 minutes
Running the Program
You'll be able to
- Choose between an MSP, MSSP, MDR service and a virtual CISO, and write the contract terms that keep tenant ownership, credential custody, logs and exit rights in your hands
- Build a lean, standard or strong security budget for a company of 10 to 500 people and say which numbers are sourced and which are rough
- Prepare for cyber insurance underwriting with dated evidence so every application answer can be proved
- Run the program with 15 defined metrics, an owner for each, and a quarterly board report skeleton
- Use a crosswalk to map one control to NIST CSF 2.0, CIS Controls v8.1, ISO/IEC 27002, SOC 2, PCI DSS, the HIPAA Security Rule, the FTC Safeguards Rule and NIST SP 800-171, and find any term or deadline in this course
Start here: the short version
- An outside provider can run your tools. It cannot own your risk. Under the FTC Safeguards Rule, if a service provider fills the Qualified Individual role, the business stays responsible and must name a senior employee to oversee that provider (16 CFR 314.4(a)). The contract has to say who does what, in writing.
- Similar names get attached to four different jobs. An MSP runs IT. An MSSP runs security tools. An MDR service watches alerts and acts on them. A virtual CISO (vCISO) leads the program. Many mid-sized firms need two of the four, bought from two different parties, so the builder is not the only one grading the work.
- Budget from risk, not from a rule of thumb. The one sourced benchmark in this lesson is a 2024 survey of CISOs that found security at 13.2 percent of the IT budget, up from 8.6 percent in 2020. It describes firms big enough to employ a CISO. For a company of 10 to 500 people, the three tiers below give a starting range you replace with written quotes.
- An insurance application is a statement of fact. Keep a dated evidence item behind every answer, and the same evidence will serve your auditors and customers.
- The crosswalk, the glossary, the metrics catalog and the deadlines index at the end are reference tools. This lesson is educational and does not replace the text of the law or of any standard.
Seventeen lessons in, the module has covered what to protect, which laws and standards apply, and how to detect, respond and recover. A manager still has to answer plain questions on a Monday. Who do we hire to run this? What should it cost? What will the insurer check? How will I know in March whether we are better off than we were in December? Which of the eight standards do I owe, and can one piece of evidence cover several?
This lesson answers those. It leans on earlier lessons rather than repeating them. The cyber insurance coverage terms live in lesson 12. The board dashboard and the rough 12-month plan live in lesson 13. Notification clocks stay canonical in lesson 11. The hands-on side for very small offices is in the small business data security module.
Choosing an MSP, MSSP, MDR service or vCISO
The labels below are the author's plain definitions. No standards body fixes them, and a vendor may use "MSSP" for a service you would call MDR. Read the service description, not the logo.
| Job | MSP | MSSP | MDR | vCISO | You (inside the company) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Help desk, user accounts, laptops | Usually yes | No | No | No | Approves who gets access |
| Patching and backups | Usually yes | Sometimes | No | Sets the standard and checks it | Owns the restore test sign-off |
| Firewall, email filter and endpoint tool management | Often | Yes | Tooling is part of the service | Chooses the standard | Owns the budget |
| Watching alerts day and night | Rarely, and seldom at night | Yes, for the tools it manages | Yes, with response actions | No | Decides who is called at 2 a.m. |
| Incident response and forensics | Basic containment | Varies | Containment and investigation help | Runs the plan and the exercise | Makes the business decisions and the notices |
| Risk assessment, policies, vendor reviews | No, or as an add-on | No | No | Yes | Signs and funds |
| Insurance and customer questionnaires | Supplies technical answers | Supplies technical answers | Supplies detection facts | Assembles and reviews evidence | Signs the application |
| Board reporting | No | No | Incident summaries | Yes | Presents |
The matrix shows why buying everything from one MSP is common and risky. The same party that configures the firewall, holds the admin keys and writes the monthly report is also the party being graded. It has every reason to report green. A vCISO or an internal owner who is not paid by the MSP can check the claims. A 25-person firm that cannot afford that separation can still get part of it by keeping one thing out of the provider's hands: your own tenant ownership and two emergency administrator accounts, described below.
The MSP is a single point of compromise
An MSP's management tools usually hold privileged access to every client. If an attacker takes that access, they reach all the clients at once. The joint advisory AA22-131A, issued May 11, 2022 by the U.S. Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), the National Security Agency, the FBI and the cyber agencies of the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada and New Zealand, was written for this reason. I read it through the UK National Cyber Security Centre's hosted copy because CISA's own page did not load in this session. Its recommendations for customers translate into contract terms.
| What the advisory recommends for customers | Contract term it becomes |
|---|---|
| Contracts should "transparently identify ownership of ICT security roles and responsibilities" | A responsibility matrix attached to the contract, naming who patches, who monitors, who responds and who decides |
| Require MFA on the services received and on all MSP accounts used to access customer environments | MFA on every provider technician account, with phishing-resistant methods for administrator accounts if your tools support them |
| Use a dedicated VPN or other secure access method for MSP connections; MSP accounts should not sit in internal administrator groups; MSPs should not reuse admin credentials across customers | Named individual accounts, least privilege, one access path you can switch off, and a ban on shared credentials |
| If the MSP monitors and logs, require visibility into the provider's activity and notice of confirmed or suspected events | Access to a log of what the provider did in your environment, and an incident notice clause with a time limit |
| Require automatic and continuous backup of critical data and configurations, kept somewhere easily retrievable | Backup scope list, location, retention and a restore test schedule you can witness |
| Understand the MSP's patching policy and its own vendors and subcontractors | A patch timetable, a subcontractor list and notice of changes to it |
| Disable MSP accounts when the contract ends | An exit clause with credential removal and a confirmation within a set number of days |
| Both parties: keep key logs for at least six months; run endpoint detection and network monitoring | Log retention of six months or longer, exportable to you |
The contract terms that matter, one row at a time
| Clause | What to write | Why | How you test it |
|---|---|---|---|
| Tenant and license ownership | Your cloud tenants, domains, DNS, licenses and backup vaults are registered to your company. The provider is a delegated administrator. | If the relationship sours, you cannot be locked out of your own email or domain. | Log in as your own global administrator and read the tenant owner field. |
| Emergency administrator accounts | Two accounts held by your company, long unique credentials stored offline, MFA that does not depend on the provider, alerts when used. | Recovery when the provider is unavailable or compromised. | Use one in a drill. Confirm the alert fires. |
| Responsibility matrix | A table, attached, of who handles each task, per CISA's advice to identify ownership transparently. | Gaps hide in "we thought you had that." | Compare it with lessons 02, 11 and 12 and mark the blank cells. |
| Service levels | Response and resolution times by severity, hours of coverage, and credits when missed. | An alert answered at 9 a.m. is not a night service. | Review last quarter's ticket report against the numbers. |
| Incident notice to you | The provider tells you of confirmed or suspected events in your environment within a stated number of hours. Many buyers write 24 hours or less; no regulation sets this figure for private contracts. | Your own clocks (lesson 11) start when you know, and the provider may know first. | Run a tabletop where the provider injects a fake alert and time the call. |
| Logging | Provider logs and your logs kept at least six months, exportable in a standard format on request. | Matches the six-month baseline in AA22-131A; investigators need history. | Request an export and open it. |
| Credential handling | No shared credentials across customers, named technician accounts, MFA, password vault with audit trail, offboarding of technicians within a day of departure. | One stolen technician login is the entry point in a provider-wide attack. | Ask for the technician access list and compare it with the provider's staff list. |
| Subcontractors | Named list, notice before changes, same security duties flowed down. | Your data sits with parties you never met. | Read the list. Look up each name. |
| Assurance reports | Current SOC 2 Type 2 report or ISO/IEC 27001 certificate that covers the services you buy, with the scope statement and exceptions list. | A report on the provider's head office tells you little about the tool that touches your network (lesson 04). | Read the scope, the period covered and any exceptions. |
| Provider insurance | Technology errors and omissions and cyber coverage, with limits stated and a certificate on file. | Your recovery from a provider mistake depends on its ability to pay. | Match the certificate to the contract limit. |
| Liability and indemnity | Read the cap and the carve-outs. Many service contracts cap liability at fees paid over a recent period; this is common practice, not a rule, and I could not source a standard figure. | A cap of 12 months of fees is small against a six-figure incident. | Compare the cap with your lesson 12 loss estimate. |
| Regulated data | Where HIPAA applies, a business associate agreement (lesson 09). Where the Safeguards Rule applies, contractual safeguards and periodic assessment of the provider (16 CFR 314.4(f)). | These duties stay with you when work is outsourced. | Confirm the agreement exists and is signed before work starts. |
| Term, renewal and exit | Renewal notice no longer than 60 days, data return in a usable format within a stated period, credential removal confirmed in writing, transition help at stated rates. | Exit terms are priced low at signing and high at departure. | Ask for the exit cost in dollars before signing. |
| Key people and continuity | Named lead engineer, backup contact, and a plan if the firm is sold. | Small providers depend on two or three people. | Ask what happens if the lead engineer leaves. |
Red flags and references
- The provider holds the only global administrator account, and the contract says the provider owns the tenant.
- No MFA on the provider's own tools, or technicians who share one login.
- A fixed price for "unlimited security" with no response times, no list of what is monitored and no named responsibilities.
- Refusal to show a current assurance report, a scope statement or a certificate of insurance.
- Reports that arrive as a single color-coded score with no raw counts behind them.
- An automatic renewal with a long notice period and a data return fee that is not stated.
- No answer when you ask which subcontractors touch your data.
Ask for three references: a client of your size, a client that left, and a client that lived through an incident. A provider that cannot offer the second and third is telling you something. Call each and ask what happened the first time something went wrong, and how long the provider took to say so.
Worked example: Tamarack Wholesale Supply compares three ways to buy
Tamarack Wholesale Supply is an invented distributor with 180 employees and 210 endpoints. Its current MSP quotes $11,900 a month for help desk, patching, backups and a bundled "security stack," with no 24-hour monitoring in the scope. The operations director prices three options.
Option A keeps the single MSP: $11,900 x 12 = $142,800 a year, or $142,800 / 180 = $793 per employee. Option B keeps a cheaper MSP for the help desk, patching and backups at $7,400 a month ($88,800 a year), adds an independent MDR service at 210 endpoints x $14 x 12 = $35,280, and adds a vCISO at $4,500 a month ($54,000). That totals $88,800 + $35,280 + $54,000 = $178,080, or $989 per employee. Option C drops the vCISO and adds nothing for monitoring: $88,800, which leaves the gaps open.
The difference between A and B is $178,080 - $142,800 = $35,280 a year. That money buys three things: someone watching alerts at night who does not work for the MSP, a leader who grades the MSP's reports, and the ability to fire either party without losing the other. Against that, lesson 01 reports an average global breach cost of $4.99 million and lesson 12 shows how downtime costs add up. The director also puts the responsibility matrix, tenant ownership and the two emergency accounts into the new MSP contract, which cost nothing extra. The prices are invented; replace them with quotes.
Questions to ask your IT provider or vendor before you sign
- Whose name is on our cloud tenants, domain registrations and backup vaults today? Show us the owner field.
- Which technician accounts can reach our environment, and does each one use MFA?
- Do you reuse any administrator credential across clients? Show us how your password vault separates them.
- What is covered by your assurance report, for what period, and what exceptions did the auditor list?
- Which of our alerts are watched at night and on weekends, by whom, and what actions can they take without calling us?
- How long do you keep our logs, and can we export them on request?
- Which subcontractors touch our data or tools?
- What happens to our data and access on the day we leave, and what does it cost?
- When did you last have an incident of your own, and how and when did you tell your customers?
Common mix-ups
- Claim: "We pay an MSP for security, so security is handled." What the rules say: The Safeguards Rule keeps the business responsible even when a service provider is the Qualified Individual, and requires a senior employee to oversee that provider (16 CFR 314.4(a)). HIPAA keeps duties with the covered entity even when work is outsourced. The advisory tells customers to write down who owns each security role.
- Claim: "A vCISO will fix our security." What the role does: A vCISO sets direction, runs the risk register, drafts policy, reviews vendors and reports to the board. Most vCISOs do not configure your firewall or watch your alerts. Buy the leader and the operator as separate jobs.
- Claim: "A SOC 2 report means the provider is safe." What it shows: That a described system met the criteria, over a stated period, as tested by an auditor, within a stated scope (lesson 04). Read the scope and the exceptions.
Budgeting: three tiers for a company of 10 to 500 people
No government agency publishes a standard security budget for companies this size. Percent-of-revenue rules circulate widely and most come from vendors. The sourced figure I can give is from a survey of chief information security officers by IANS Research and Artico Search, released September 5, 2024 and summarized by Cybersecurity Dive: security was 13.2 percent of the IT budget in 2024 and 8.6 percent in 2020. The sample was 750 CISOs, of whom 681 answered the budget questions. The article gives no breakdown by company size and no percentage of revenue. A company that has a CISO on staff spends differently from a 60-person firm with a vCISO, so use the figure as a sanity check on direction, not as a target.
Tie the tier to company size
Lesson 02 set three size bands and a minimum viable stack for each. The tiers here are budget envelopes that sit on top of those stacks.
| Tier | Who it fits | What it buys | What it leaves open |
|---|---|---|---|
| Lean | 10 to 25 people, no regulated data, low customer demand for proof | MFA with hardware keys for administrators and finance, password manager, short training, immutable backup, written one-page incident card, insurance application evidence kept in a folder | No one watching alerts at night; no independent test; the owner is the security lead |
| Standard | 25 to 150 people, some regulated data or customer questionnaires | Lean plus managed detection and response, a vCISO for a few hours a month, an external vulnerability scan, quarterly access review, annual tabletop | Annual penetration test is not funded; limited vendor reviews |
| Strong | 100 to 500 people, regulated data, or contracts that demand attestation | Standard plus keys for every employee, annual external penetration test, facilitated tabletops, more vCISO hours, an assurance report or certification project | Little. The risk register drives the next dollar |
Worked example: Kestrel Ridge Surveying prices the three tiers
Kestrel Ridge Surveying is an invented firm with 60 employees, 70 endpoints and $14 million in annual revenue. It holds client project files but no card data. It already owns Microsoft 365 licenses for its base IT, so the budget covers only security additions. All figures are planning estimates, not quotes.
Lean: a password manager at 60 x $5 x 12 = $3,600; training at 60 x $3 x 12 = $2,160; immutable backup at $4,000 a year; two hardware keys each for 12 administrators and finance staff at 12 x 2 x $50 = $1,200 one time. Lean total: $3,600 + $2,160 + $4,000 + $1,200 = $10,960.
Standard: Lean plus MDR at 70 x $12 x 12 = $10,080, a vCISO at 4 hours a month x $250 x 12 = $12,000, and an external vulnerability scan at $3,000. Standard total: $10,960 + $10,080 + $12,000 + $3,000 = $36,040, which is $36,040 / 60 = $601 per employee and $36,040 / $14,000,000 = 0.26 percent of revenue.
Strong: Standard plus an external penetration test at $15,000, two facilitated tabletops at $6,000, keys for the other 48 people at 48 x 2 x $50 = $4,800, and six more vCISO hours a month at 6 x $250 x 12 = $18,000. Strong total: $36,040 + $15,000 + $6,000 + $4,800 + $18,000 = $79,840, which is $1,331 per employee and 0.57 percent of revenue.
Check against the survey: if Kestrel Ridge's IT budget is $620,000, then 13.2 percent is 0.132 x $620,000 = $81,840, close to the Strong tier. The firm chooses Standard in year one, because the risk register shows no regulated data, and writes the Strong items it deferred into the register with a date to revisit them. That written deferral is the evidence an insurer or auditor looks for.
Build or buy
| Function | Build (inside) | Buy (outside) | Rule of thumb |
|---|---|---|---|
| Help desk and patching | Needs at least two people to cover absence | MSP | Buy below about 75 people unless you already employ a team |
| 24-hour alert watching | Needs about five to six people to staff nights and weekends; I could not source an exact figure | MDR | Buy almost always; no mid-sized firm staffs this cheaply |
| Security leadership | Full-time CISO salary and benefits | vCISO | Buy until the program needs daily direction, then hire |
| Penetration testing | Possible, but you lose independence | Outside tester | Buy; independence is the product |
| Policies and training content | Own the content | Templates and a training platform | Buy the platform and edit the content to fit your business |
| Incident response retainer | Not realistic | Insurer panel firm or retainer | Buy, and check the retainer firm is on the insurer's panel (lesson 12) |
vCISO pricing varies. One vendor that sells vCISO services, SideChannel, publishes a guide with monthly retainers of $1,500 to $4,000 for companies of 1 to 50 employees, $3,000 to $7,000 for 50 to 200, and $5,000 to $12,000 for 200 to 500. The same guide quotes $200 to $400 an hour for ad hoc advisory work. Treat it as vendor marketing and compare at least two quotes; the article contradicts itself in places. Lesson 02 shows a rough range of $1,500 to $6,000 a month for the same service, and the two overlap.
Cyber insurance underwriting: how your answers get scored
Lesson 12 explains what a policy covers, where it excludes, and why the application is a statement of fact. This section covers how to prepare for the underwriter's look at you. Underwriting is the insurer's process of judging your risk from the application, from any outside scan of your internet footprint, and from evidence you supply, then setting price, limits and conditions.
What the application tends to ask
Carrier forms differ, and I could not read a single carrier's current form in this session, so the table reflects common categories described in lesson 12 and in broker and carrier material rather than one source. Use it to build your evidence folder, then compare it with the actual form.
| Area | Typical question | Evidence to keep, dated | Owner |
|---|---|---|---|
| Identity | Is MFA required for email, remote access and all administrator accounts? For what share of users? | Identity provider report showing MFA status by account, with the date | IT lead |
| Endpoint | Is endpoint detection and response installed on all endpoints and servers? Is anyone watching it at night? | Console coverage report, MDR contract and escalation path | IT lead |
| Backups | Are backups offline or immutable, separated from the main network, and tested? | Backup settings screenshot, last restore test report with time to restore | IT lead |
| Patching | How quickly are critical patches applied? Any end-of-life systems reachable from the internet? | Patch report, exception list with owner and date | IT lead |
| Email security | Is email filtered? Are SPF, DKIM and DMARC set to enforce? | DNS records and filter console | IT lead |
| Funds transfer | Is there a call-back and dual approval for payment changes? | Written procedure, a log of recent call-backs | Finance lead |
| Training and response | Is there training, and a tested incident plan with an insurer contact? | Completion records, tabletop notes | Security lead |
| Data and revenue | How many personal records, card transactions and what revenue? | Data map (lesson 03), PCI scope summary (lesson 05) | Privacy lead |
| History | Any incidents, claims or known circumstances? | Incident log with dates | Security lead |
What an outside scan can see
Anyone on the internet can look at the parts of your network that answer back. Insurers and brokers commonly use such looks at quote and renewal; I could not confirm any specific carrier's method from a primary source, so treat that as widespread practice rather than a fact about your carrier. What a scan can see is technical and easy to list:
- Open remote desktop or file-sharing ports, and login pages for VPNs or firewalls.
- The software version a firewall or VPN device announces, and whether it matches a known-exploited flaw.
- Whether your domain publishes SPF, DKIM and DMARC records, and at what policy.
- Expired or weak certificates on public sites.
- Credentials from your domain that appear in public breach dumps.
At-Bay, a cyber insurer, reported in its 2026 InsurSec Report (published April 22, 2026, covering 2025 claims across more than 100,000 policy years) that the Akira ransomware group accounted for more than 40 percent of its ransomware claims in 2025, that 86 percent of Akira attacks occurred where a SonicWall device was present, and that it links higher risk to exposed on-premise remote access appliances generally. It also reported claim frequency up 7 percent, the highest since 2021, an average claim severity of $221,000, and financial fraud as the most common incident type at 30 percent of claims with an average loss of $285,000. This is one carrier's portfolio, so it is vendor data, not a market statistic. It does explain why underwriters look hard at remote access devices and payment procedures.
CISA offers free scanning of internet-facing assets, but eligibility is limited. Its Cyber Hygiene vulnerability scanning and web application scanning are open to U.S. federal, state, local, tribal and territorial governments and to public and private sector critical infrastructure organizations. The page does not mention other small businesses. If your firm qualifies as critical infrastructure, you can sign up by emailing vulnerability@cisa.dhs.gov with the subject "Requesting Cyber Hygiene Services." Otherwise a commercial external scan gives you a similar view to the one an underwriter may have. I could not source a price for one, so get quotes; the $3,000 in the worked example below is a planning estimate.
A renewal calendar
| When | Do this | Evidence produced |
|---|---|---|
| 120 days before renewal | Run an external scan. Close anything it finds. Read last year's application against today's facts. | Scan report, list of changes since last year |
| 90 days | Refresh the evidence folder: MFA report, EDR coverage, backup and restore test, patch report, DMARC record. | Dated exports |
| 60 days | Meet the broker. Compare the new form with the folder. Mark every answer "yes," "partly" or "no" with the evidence reference. | Completed answer sheet |
| 45 days | Technical owners sign the answer sheet. The executive who signs the application reads it. | Sign-off sheet, one line per answer |
| 30 days | Submit. Answer follow-up questions in writing and keep copies. | Submitted application and correspondence |
| Bind date | Read declarations, sublimits and conditions against lesson 12's checklist. | Policy review notes |
| After bind | Add a calendar item for any control the application says will be finished by a date. Report lapses to the broker. | Change log |
Worked example: Pinewood Orthopedic Clinic finds a gap before the insurer does
Pinewood Orthopedic Clinic is an invented practice with 62 employees and a $2,000,000 cyber policy with a $25,000 retention. Its draft renewal application says MFA protects all remote access. The 120-day external scan finds an old VPN login page that accepts passwords alone. Fixing it takes about 19 hours of technician time at $100 an hour, or $1,900.
Suppose the clinic had signed and an incident came through that old page. A $380,000 loss after the retention is $380,000 - $25,000 = $355,000 of potential payment. If the carrier denied or reduced the claim over the inaccurate answer, the clinic could carry most of the $380,000 itself. The fix costs $1,900 against an exposure of $380,000, a ratio of 200 to 1. The clinic also records the exception in the evidence folder with the date it was closed, because a signed, dated record of a found and fixed gap is what a reviewer wants to see.
Common mix-ups
- Claim: "If we get a quote, we passed underwriting." What happens: A quote is an offer based on your answers. A claim review checks the answers again, as the Travelers v. International Control Services case described in lesson 12 shows.
- Claim: "The broker fills in the form, so the broker is responsible." What happens: The signer attests to the facts. Brokers rely on you for the technical answers.
- Claim: "A lower premium means a safer company." What it means: Premiums reflect market conditions as well as your controls. Lesson 12 reports global cyber rates falling for several straight quarters, so a lower price may say more about the market than about you.
Metrics: 15 measures that run the program
Lesson 13 gave you a one-page board dashboard of eight indicators. This section is the catalog behind it. Every metric below has a definition, a target, a data source and one owner. NIST published its measurement guide, SP 800-55, as two final volumes in December 2024. Volume 1 covers identifying and selecting measures. Volume 2 covers developing a measurement program, with a workflow for tying results to leadership decisions. The advice in both is plain: pick a few measures you will act on, write down how each is computed, and drop the ones nobody uses.
A leading indicator describes what you are doing now and predicts later results. A lagging indicator counts outcomes after they happen. You need both. Lagging counts such as incidents are what the board feels, but they arrive too late to steer by.
| # | Metric | Type | Definition | Sample target | Data source | Owner |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | MFA coverage | Leading | Active accounts with MFA enforced divided by all active accounts; report phishing-resistant MFA separately for administrators and finance | 100 percent of administrators and finance; 98 percent or more of all | Identity provider report | IT lead |
| 2 | Orphaned and dormant accounts | Leading | Enabled accounts belonging to departed staff or unused for 45 days | 0 orphaned; dormant reviewed monthly | Identity provider and HR roster | IT lead with HR |
| 3 | Time to remove leaver access | Leading | Median hours from separation time to disabled sign-in and revoked sessions | Under 4 hours | HR ticket and identity log | HR lead |
| 4 | Critical patch compliance | Leading | Critical patches applied within the service level, divided by all critical patches due | 95 percent or more within 14 days; PCI scope within one month (PCI 6.3.3) | Patch tool | IT lead |
| 5 | Internet-facing end-of-life assets | Leading | Count of public-facing devices or software no longer supported by the maker | 0, or each with a dated exception | External scan, asset inventory | IT lead |
| 6 | Endpoint coverage | Leading | Endpoints reporting to the detection tool in the last 7 days, divided by endpoints in inventory | 98 percent or more | Console and inventory | IT lead |
| 7 | Restore test result | Leading | Date of the last full restore of a critical system, pass or fail, and hours taken against the recovery time target | Quarterly; time under the target | Test record | IT lead |
| 8 | Phishing report rate and triage time | Leading | Reports per 100 staff per quarter, and median minutes to triage | Rising reports; under 30 minutes | Mailbox report button, ticket log | Security lead |
| 9 | Top-tier vendors with a current review | Leading | Tier 1 vendors with a security review under 12 months old, divided by all Tier 1 vendors | 100 percent | Vendor register (lesson 09) | Procurement |
| 10 | High risks past their treatment date | Leading | Register entries rated high with a treatment date already passed | 0 | Risk register (lesson 03) | CEO or risk owner |
| 11 | Policy exceptions open past expiry | Leading | Approved exceptions to policy that have run beyond their end date | 0 | Exception log | Security lead |
| 12 | Insurance evidence currency | Leading | Application answers backed by evidence less than 90 days old, divided by all answers | 100 percent at the 60-day mark before renewal | Evidence folder | Finance lead |
| 13 | Time to detect and contain | Lagging | Median hours from first malicious activity to detection, and from detection to containment, for incidents in the period | Falling trend; targets set after two quarters of data | Incident records (lesson 11) | Security lead |
| 14 | Incidents and near misses | Lagging | Count by type, with cost and the fix recorded for each | No target on count; target 100 percent with a recorded lesson | Incident log | Security lead |
| 15 | Funds transfer attempts caught | Lagging | Fraudulent or altered payment requests stopped by call-back or dual approval, and any that were paid | 0 paid | Accounts payable log | Finance lead |
A few cautions. A target is a management decision, so the numbers in the table are samples to adjust. A metric with no owner is a decoration. And a perfect score on one measure can hide a gap in another: 100 percent MFA coverage means little if 40 shared accounts sit outside the count.
Quarterly board report skeleton
| Section | Contents | Length | Source |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. Decisions requested | Money, risk acceptances and policy approvals needed this quarter, each with a dollar figure and a recommendation | Half a page | CEO and security lead |
| 2. Dashboard | Six to eight metrics from the catalog, trend against last quarter, target, owner | One page | Lesson 13 sample, metrics above |
| 3. Incidents and near misses | Facts, cost, what changed afterward. No blame language. | Half a page | Incident log |
| 4. Risk register movement | New high risks, risks closed, risks accepted with the signer's name | Half a page | Risk register |
| 5. Third parties | Provider assurance reports received, exceptions found, changes of MSP or key vendors | Half a page | Vendor register |
| 6. Law and customer changes | New rules, customer questionnaires, insurer changes, with the date each applies | Half a page | Lessons 06, 07 and 12 |
| 7. Next 90 days | Three to five items with owners and dates | Quarter page | Roadmap |
Where the Safeguards Rule applies, the Qualified Individual must report in writing to the board or equivalent body at least annually, covering program status, compliance and material matters such as risks, testing, service provider arrangements and security events (16 CFR 314.4(i)). The skeleton above gives you that report four times a year, with the fourth edition doubling as the annual written one.
The standards crosswalk
A crosswalk is a table that maps one control to the matching items in several standards. Its payoff is practical. If you collect a dated MFA coverage report once, it answers the insurer, the customer's SOC 2 questionnaire, your PCI assessor, your HIPAA risk analysis and the Safeguards Rule file together, because each standard asks about MFA in its own words.
Read these warnings first. This crosswalk is the author's own mapping at the level of requirement families and well-known requirement numbers. It is not an official mapping. The official ones are NIST's CSF 2.0 informative references, and the mapping files CIS says it publishes among its resources (the CIS v8.1 page points to "companion guides, policy templates, mappings, and more" on its resources page). Before you put a crosswalk in a contract or an audit response, check each cell against the current text. A mapping shows overlap, not equivalence. A CIS safeguard and a PCI requirement on the same topic can differ in how strict they are. And I verified the following in this session: the CSF 2.0 category names and identifiers (NIST CSWP 29), the CIS control names and the safeguard titles for Controls 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 11, 14, 15, 17 and 18 (CIS's assessment specification, which uses v8 numbering; CIS says the safeguard count is unchanged in v8.1, so confirm the numbers in the v8.1 workbook), the ISO/IEC 27002:2022 control titles listed on a third-party reference site (the standard itself is sold, not free), the SOC 2 common criteria series names, the PCI DSS 12 requirement names, the HIPAA citations on 45 CFR 164.308, 164.310 and 164.312, and 16 CFR 314.4. I could not re-read the NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 2 requirement numbers or the SOC 2 sub-criteria numbers from primary text, so those are marked as author recall.
On 800-171: NIST's page now shows Revision 2 as withdrawn on May 14, 2024 and superseded by Revision 3 (published May 2024, 17 families). Lesson 04 reports that the CMMC program rule still references Revision 2's 110 requirements, which is why the table uses Revision 2 numbers. Revision 3 renumbers the requirements, so do not mix the two sets in one evidence file.
Table A: frameworks
| ID | Control | NIST CSF 2.0 category | CIS Controls v8.1 safeguards | ISO/IEC 27002:2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| C01 | Named security owner and governance | GV.RR Roles, Responsibilities, and Authorities; GV.OV Oversight | No single safeguard; CIS added a Governance function in v8.1 | 5.1 policies; 5.2 roles (author recall); ISO 27001 clause 5.3 |
| C02 | Written risk assessment | ID.RA Risk Assessment; GV.RM Risk Management Strategy | No dedicated safeguard; 7.1 and 18.1 feed it | ISO 27001 clause 6.1.2 |
| C03 | Asset and software inventory | ID.AM Asset Management | 1.1, 1.2, 2.1 | 5.9 |
| C04 | Multi-factor authentication | PR.AA Identity Management, Authentication, and Access Control | 6.3, 6.4, 6.5 | 8.5 secure authentication |
| C05 | Least privilege, access reviews, joiners and leavers | PR.AA | 5.3, 5.4, 6.1, 6.2 | 5.15, 5.16, 5.18, 8.2 |
| C06 | Encryption of data in transit and at rest | PR.DS Data Security | 3.6, 3.10, 3.11 | 8.24 |
| C07 | Secure configuration and hardening | PR.PS Platform Security | Control 4 | 8.9 |
| C08 | Vulnerability scanning and patching | ID.RA; PR.PS | 7.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4 | 8.8 |
| C09 | Endpoint and malware protection | PR.PS; DE.CM Continuous Monitoring | Control 10 | 8.7 |
| C10 | Logging and monitoring | DE.CM; DE.AE Adverse Event Analysis | 8.1, 8.2, 8.3; Control 13 | 8.15, 8.16 |
| C11 | Security awareness training | PR.AT Awareness and Training | 14.1 to 14.8 | 6.3 |
| C12 | Incident response plan and exercises | RS.MA Incident Management; RS.AN; RS.CO; RS.MI | 17.1, 17.2, 17.3, 17.4, 17.7, 17.8 | 5.24 to 5.28 |
| C13 | Backup and recovery | PR.DS; RC.RP Incident Recovery Plan Execution | 11.1 to 11.4; 11.5 for testing (IG2 and up) | 8.13, 5.29, 5.30 |
| C14 | Vendor and third-party management | GV.SC Cybersecurity Supply Chain Risk Management | 15.1 to 15.4 | 5.19 to 5.23 |
| C15 | Secure development and web applications | PR.PS | Control 16 | 8.25 to 8.28 |
| C16 | Change management | PR.PS | Part of Control 4 | 8.32 |
| C17 | Penetration testing and independent review | ID.IM Improvement; ID.RA | 18.1, 18.2, 18.3 (IG2 and up) | Author recall: 5.35 independent review |
| C18 | Physical security and media disposal | PR.IR Technology Infrastructure Resilience | 3.5 secure disposal | 7.1 to 7.14, including 7.14 secure disposal |
| C19 | Retention and deletion of data | PR.DS | 3.4 enforce retention; 3.5 | Author recall: 8.10 information deletion |
| C20 | Management review and board reporting | GV.OV; ID.IM | No dedicated safeguard | ISO 27001 clause 9.3 |
Table B: rules, attestations and contract standards
| ID | SOC 2 (2017 TSC, revised 2022) | PCI DSS 4.0.1 | HIPAA Security Rule (45 CFR) | FTC Safeguards (16 CFR 314.4) | NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 2 (author recall) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| C01 | CC1 Control Environment | Requirement 12 (12.1 policy; 12.4 program managed) | 164.308(a)(2) assigned security responsibility | (a) Qualified Individual | 3.12.4 system security plan |
| C02 | CC3 Risk Assessment | 12.3 risks identified and managed | 164.308(a)(1)(ii)(A) risk analysis; (B) risk management | (b) written risk assessment | 3.11.1 |
| C03 | CC6.1 (inventory of information assets in the points of focus) | 12.5.1 inventory of in-scope components | 164.310(d)(2)(iii) accountability for media movement | (c)(2) asset management | 3.4.1 |
| C04 | CC6.1 | 8.4.2 MFA for all access into the cardholder data environment | 164.312(d) person or entity authentication (no MFA wording) | (c)(5) MFA for any individual accessing any information system, or an approved equivalent | 3.5.3 |
| C05 | CC6.2, CC6.3 | Requirements 7 and 8 | 164.308(a)(3) workforce security, including (a)(3)(ii)(C) termination procedures; (a)(4) information access management; 164.312(a)(1) | (c)(1) access controls | 3.1.1, 3.1.5 |
| C06 | CC6.1, CC6.7 | Requirements 3 and 4 | 164.312(a)(2)(iv) and (e)(2)(ii), both addressable | (c)(3) encryption in transit and at rest, or approved compensating controls | 3.13.8, 3.13.16 |
| C07 | CC7.1 | Requirement 2 | Through risk management; no named standard | Indirect, through (c)(7) and (g) | 3.4.2 |
| C08 | CC7.1 | 6.3.3 critical and high patches within one month; 11.3 scans | Through risk management, 164.308(a)(1)(ii)(B) | (d)(2) annual penetration test and vulnerability assessments every six months | 3.11.2, 3.14.1 |
| C09 | CC6.8 | Requirement 5 | 164.308(a)(5)(ii)(B) protection from malicious software, addressable | Indirect, through (c)(8) and (d) | 3.14.2 |
| C10 | CC7.2 | Requirement 10 | 164.312(b) audit controls; 164.308(a)(1)(ii)(D) information system activity review | (c)(8) monitor and log user activity | 3.3.1 |
| C11 | CC1.4, CC2.2 | 12.6 | 164.308(a)(5) | (e) personnel training | 3.2.1 |
| C12 | CC7.3, CC7.4, CC7.5 | 12.10.1 | 164.308(a)(6)(ii) response and reporting | (h) written incident response plan | 3.6.1, 3.6.2 |
| C13 | A1.2, A1.3 (Availability category only) | Addressed in Requirement 9 for media and in 12.10.1 for recovery; no dedicated backup requirement | 164.308(a)(7)(ii)(A) data backup plan, required; (B) disaster recovery plan, required; (D) testing, addressable | (h) recover from events | 3.8.9 |
| C14 | CC9.2 | 12.8 third-party service providers | 164.308(b) business associate contracts | (f) service providers | Flow-down by contract |
| C15 | CC8.1 | 6.2, 6.4 | No named standard | (c)(4) secure development | No separate family |
| C16 | CC8 Change Management | 6.5 | 164.308(a)(8) evaluation after changes | (c)(7) change management | 3.4.3 |
| C17 | CC4 Monitoring of Controls | 11.4 | 164.308(a)(8) evaluation | (d)(2) annual penetration test | 3.12.1 |
| C18 | CC6.4, CC6.5 | Requirement 9 | 164.310 including (d)(2)(i) disposal and (d)(2)(ii) media re-use, both required | (c)(1) physical access; (c)(6) disposal | 3.10.1, 3.8.3 |
| C19 | C1.2 (Confidentiality category only) | 3.2.1 limit storage to what is needed | 164.316(b)(2)(i) six-year documentation retention; 164.310(d)(2)(i) | (c)(6) dispose within two years of last use, with exceptions | 3.8.3 |
| C20 | CC1.2, CC2.2 | 12.4 | 164.308(a)(8) | (i) annual written report to the board | 3.12.x family |
Notes that matter when you use the tables. HIPAA labels many implementation specifications "addressable," which means you must assess whether the safeguard is reasonable and appropriate and document the reasoning if you choose something else. It does not mean optional. The HIPAA citations above come from the current text on 45 CFR 164.308, 164.310 and 164.312. HHS proposed an update to the Security Rule on January 6, 2025; HHS's Security Rule page, last reviewed March 19, 2026, lists the proposal and does not state a final rule, and lesson 06 tracks the timing. SOC 2 does not prescribe controls. The CC and A1 numbers name criteria that a report's author must show are met, and the control that meets them is the company's choice. PCI DSS is a contract standard, not a statute (lesson 05).
Worked example: one evidence library instead of three scrambles
Pinewood Orthopedic Clinic faces three requests in a year: an insurance renewal, a HIPAA risk analysis refresh, and a hospital partner's security questionnaire modeled on SOC 2. Each wants evidence on 20 control areas, and the clinic's practice manager estimates 1.5 hours to gather one item. Done three separate times, that is 3 x 20 x 1.5 = 90 hours.
With the crosswalk, the clinic builds one library of 20 dated items in the first pass: 20 x 1.5 = 30 hours. Each later request then takes a quarter hour per item to refresh and relabel: 3 x 20 x 0.25 = 15 hours. The total is 30 + 15 = 45 hours, a saving of 90 - 45 = 45 hours. At a loaded rate of $55 an hour that is 45 x $55 = $2,475. The larger gain is that three audiences now see the same facts, so the answers cannot drift apart.
Every deadline in the course, and where it comes from
Notification clocks have one canonical home in lesson 11. This index lists the clocks and other time limits that appear in the module, with the source and the lesson to check. Items marked "carried" were not re-read for this lesson and come from the lesson named. If you rely on one, open the source.
| Time limit | Applies to | Source | Status in this lesson | Lesson |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Notify the FTC as soon as possible and no later than 30 days after discovery, for events involving at least 500 consumers | Businesses under the Safeguards Rule | 16 CFR 314.4(j) | Verified against the text | 11 |
| Annual penetration test; vulnerability assessments at least every six months, when continuous monitoring is absent | Safeguards Rule businesses | 16 CFR 314.4(d)(2) | Verified | 15 |
| Dispose of customer information no later than two years after last use, with exceptions | Safeguards Rule businesses | 16 CFR 314.4(c)(6) | Verified | 17 |
| Written report to the board at least annually | Safeguards Rule businesses | 16 CFR 314.4(i) | Verified | 13 |
| Notice to individuals without unreasonable delay and no later than 60 calendar days after discovery | HIPAA covered entities | 45 CFR 164.404(b) | Verified | 11 |
| Keep security documentation six years from creation or last effect, whichever is later | HIPAA covered entities and business associates | 45 CFR 164.316(b)(2)(i) | Verified | 10, 17 |
| Notice to Idaho residents in the most expedient time possible and without unreasonable delay; agencies notify the Attorney General within 24 hours | Commercial entities (first clause), agencies (second clause) | Idaho Code 28-51-105 | Verified; the 24-hour rule is for agencies only | 07 |
| Retain key logs at least six months | MSPs and customers, as a baseline recommendation | CISA advisory AA22-131A | Verified; guidance, not law | 11 |
| Install critical and high-risk patches within one month of release | PCI DSS entities | PCI DSS 4.0.1, 6.3.3 | Verified through a third-party summary of the standard | 05, 15 |
| Keep audit logs 12 months, three months immediately available | PCI DSS entities | PCI DSS 4.0.1, 10.5.1 | Unverified here; author recall | 05 |
| CMMC phase dates in the rule: Phase 2 November 10, 2026; Phase 3 November 10, 2027; Phase 4 November 10, 2028. Law-firm reports say DoD suspended Phase 2 by memo on July 13, 2026, leaving Phase 1 self-assessments in place, so the November 10, 2026 date should not be treated as binding | Defense contractors and subcontractors | 32 CFR 170.3(e) and the DFARS rule; suspension from law-firm reports | Carried from lessons 04 and 16. The DoD memo itself was not retrieved: reported, not confirmed. Read each solicitation | 04, 16 |
| Four business days after deciding an incident is material | Public companies | SEC Form 8-K Item 1.05 | Carried | 11, 13 |
| 72 hours to the supervisory authority where feasible | Organizations in GDPR scope | GDPR Article 33 | Carried | 08, 11 |
| 72 hours for covered incidents, 24 hours for ransom payments | Critical infrastructure entities, once the final rule takes effect | CIRCIA | Not in force as far as lessons 11 and 13 report; not re-checked here | 11, 13 |
| 45 days plus one 45-day extension to answer a California consumer request | Businesses under the CCPA | Civil Code 1798.130 | Carried | 13 |
| As soon as practicable, no later than 30 days after becoming aware (Regulation S-P amendments); compliance dates December 3, 2025 for larger entities and June 3, 2026 for smaller | Broker-dealers, investment companies, registered advisers, transfer agents | SEC Regulation S-P | Carried | 11 |
| 72 hours after determining a cybersecurity incident occurred; 24 hours after an extortion payment | Entities licensed under New York financial services, banking or insurance law | 23 NYCRR 500.17 | Carried | 11 |
| 30 days to notify residents: Colorado, Florida and California; New York within 30 days of discovery; Texas no later than 60 days; Idaho with no fixed day count | Businesses holding residents' personal information | State breach statutes in the lesson 11 table | Carried; Idaho verified above | 07, 11 |
| 3 calendar days to the acquirer for a suspected card data compromise (Visa, via the acquirer) | Merchants and service providers under card brand rules | Card brand rules | Carried | 11 |
| FLSA payroll 3 years; time cards 2 years; EEOC personnel records 1 year; I-9 the later of 3 years after hire or 1 year after employment ends; OSHA 300 log 5 years; FMLA 3 years; ERISA 6 years; OSHA medical records employment plus 30 years | Employers | 29 CFR 516.5, 516.6, 1602.14; 8 CFR 274a.2; 29 CFR 1904.33, 825.500, 1910.1020; 29 U.S.C. 1027 | Carried from lesson 17, which read each rule | 17 |
| Hold notices: written acknowledgment within 2 business days and a reminder every 90 days (the lesson's suggested practice, not a legal period) | Any business issuing a legal hold | Lesson 17 checklist; Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 37(e) sets no day count | Practice, not law | 17 |
| Children's data: written retention policy and no indefinite retention; COPPA Rule amendments compliance date April 22, 2026 | Operators of online services directed to children | 16 CFR 312.10; 90 FR 16918 | Carried from lesson 17, which read the Federal Register page | 06, 17 |
| Connecticut employee monitoring notice rules replaced October 1, 2026 (Public Act 26-73) | Employers monitoring Connecticut staff | C.G.S. 31-48d as replaced | Carried from lesson 17, which read the act text | 17 |
| Illinois biometric data: destroy when the purpose is met or within 3 years of the person's last interaction, whichever is first | Private entities holding biometric identifiers | 740 ILCS 14/15(a) | Carried from lesson 17 | 17 |
Glossary of the module's terms
Terms are defined where they first appear. This list collects 160 of them in one place, including every term in the terms boxes of lessons 1 to 17, with the lesson to read for context. Lessons 14 to 17 are the identity, vulnerabilities and patching, government contracts and sectors, and records lessons.
| Term | Plain meaning | Lesson |
|---|---|---|
| Acceptable use policy | The rules for how staff may use company systems and data | 10 |
| Access review | A scheduled check that each person's access still matches the job | 14 |
| Acquirer | The bank or processor that holds your merchant account and answers to the card brands for your compliance. It is the party that usually sends you the PCI notices and fees. | 05 |
| Addressable (HIPAA) | A safeguard you must assess and either apply or replace with a documented equivalent | 06 |
| Adequacy decision | A formal finding by the European Commission that a country or framework gives personal data protection essentially equivalent to the EU's, so data can move there without extra safeguards. | 08 |
| Affirming Official | The senior person in a company who signs the annual statement that it continues to meet its CMMC level. The signature is entered in SPRS. | 16 |
| AI inventory | A maintained list of every AI tool and AI-enabled feature in use, with owner, purpose, data types, vendor terms and risk tier. | 13 |
| Annual affirmation | A yearly signed statement by a senior official that required controls are in place | 16 |
| Asset inventory | A current list of devices, software, accounts and data stores | 03 |
| ASV scan | A vulnerability scan of internet-facing systems run by an Approved Scanning Vendor, required quarterly for many merchants. | 05 |
| Attack surface | Everything of yours an attacker can reach from outside | 15 |
| ATT&CK | MITRE ATT&CK: a public catalog of attacker tactics and techniques used to describe and plan against attacks. | 02 |
| Attestation | An independent auditor's written opinion about controls, such as a SOC 2 report | 04 |
| Automated decision-making technology (ADMT) | Software that makes or materially influences a decision about a person, such as hiring, lending, insurance or housing, and is the focus of the newer state AI and privacy rules. | 13 |
| Backup, immutable | A backup copy that cannot be changed or deleted for a set time, even by an administrator | 12 |
| Biometric identifier | A measurement of a body feature used to identify a person, such as a fingerprint, face geometry or voiceprint. | 17 |
| Board dashboard | A one-page report of a few measured indicators, with trend, target and owner, that lets a board see program health without technical detail. | 13 |
| Board report | A written account of program status for directors or owners | 13, 18 |
| Breach notification | The duty to tell people or regulators after certain data exposures | 11 |
| Break-glass account | An emergency administrator account held offline for use when normal access fails | 14, 18 |
| Business associate | A vendor that handles protected health information for a covered entity | 06, 09 |
| Business email compromise | Fraud that uses a taken-over or faked email account to redirect money or data | 10 |
| Business impact analysis | A study of what each business function loses per hour of outage | 12 |
| C3PAO | A third-party assessor accredited to assess CMMC Level 2 | 04, 16 |
| CDE | Cardholder data environment: the people, processes and systems that store, process or transmit card data, plus anything connected enough to affect their security. | 05 |
| Certification | A formal credential from an accredited body, such as ISO/IEC 27001 | 04 |
| Chain of custody | A written record of who held a piece of evidence, when, and what was done to it, so that the evidence can be trusted later. | 11 |
| Chargeback | A reversal of a card payment forced by the cardholder's bank, which takes back the sale amount from the merchant and often adds a fee. | 05 |
| CIPA | The California Invasion of Privacy Act, a state criminal and civil statute on wiretapping, eavesdropping and pen registers that plaintiffs' lawyers have used against website tracking tools. | 08 |
| CIS Controls | 18 prioritized security controls with 153 safeguards from the Center for Internet Security | 04 |
| CMMC | Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification, the Defense Department's supplier program | 04, 16 |
| Compliance | Meeting the specific requirements of a law, contract or standard, and being able to prove it with records. | 01 |
| Conditional access | Rules that allow or block a sign-in based on user, device, location and risk | 14 |
| Controlled Unclassified Information | Sensitive government information that is not classified but must be protected | 04, 16 |
| Controller and processor | In most state privacy laws, the controller decides why and how personal data is used. A processor handles it on the controller's behalf under a contract. | 07 |
| Covered defense information | Unclassified controlled technical information or other CUI-registry information that is marked or identified in a DoD contract, or that the contractor creates or receives in support of it. DFARS 252.204-7012 protects it. | 16 |
| Covered entity | A health plan, clearinghouse or provider that sends health data electronically | 06 |
| Crosswalk | A table mapping one control to several standards | 18 |
| CUEC | Complementary user entity controls: the controls a SOC 2 report says the customer must run on its own side, such as removing departed employees' access, for the vendor's controls to work as described. | 09 |
| Cure period | A set number of days after an Attorney General notice during which a business can fix an alleged violation and avoid a lawsuit. Many state privacy laws have one, and some expire on a set date. | 07 |
| Custodian | A person or system that holds records covered by a hold, such as a manager's mailbox or a shared drive. | 17 |
| CVE | Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures: the public ID number, such as CVE-2021-44228, given to one specific known flaw in software or hardware. | 15 |
| CVSS | Common Vulnerability Scoring System: a 0 to 10 severity score for a flaw. It measures how bad a flaw could be, not whether anyone is using it against you. | 15 |
| Cyber insurance | Coverage for defined costs of a cyber incident | 12, 18 |
| Data broker | A business that collects and sells personal data about people it has no direct relationship with. Several states require brokers to register, and California runs a single deletion platform for them. | 07 |
| Data classification | A small set of labels, such as Public, Internal, Confidential and Restricted, that tell staff how to store, share and dispose of each kind of information. | 03 |
| Data map | A record of what sensitive data a business holds, where it is kept, how it moves between people, systems and vendors, and how it is destroyed. Also called a data flow map or data inventory. | 03 |
| Data minimization | Collecting and keeping only the data you need | 13 |
| Data Privacy Framework (DPF) | A US self-certification program run by the Department of Commerce. A US company that certifies can receive EU personal data under the Commission's 2023 adequacy decision. The UK Extension and the Swiss-US framework work the same way for those countries. | 08 |
| Data processing agreement | A contract setting how a vendor may handle your personal data | 09 |
| Deemed export | Releasing controlled technology or technical data to a foreign person inside the United States, which export control rules treat as an export to that person's home country. | 16 |
| Deepfake | Audio, video or images created or altered by AI to make a person appear to say or do something they did not. | 13 |
| Defense in depth | Stacking controls so one failure does not expose everything | 02 |
| Defensible deletion | Disposing of records on a written schedule, with a documented process and a log, so the business can show the deletion was routine and not an attempt to hide evidence. | 17 |
| DMARC | An email setting that tells receivers how to treat mail that fails sender checks | 15 |
| Edge device | A firewall, VPN gateway, router or similar appliance that sits between your network and the internet. Attackers target them because they are reachable and often lightly monitored. | 15 |
| EDR | Endpoint detection and response: software on devices that spots and contains attacks | 02, 11 |
| Electronically stored information (ESI) | Email, chat, documents, databases, logs, photos and any other data kept in electronic form that could be requested in a dispute. | 17 |
| EPSS | Exploit Prediction Scoring System: a daily score from 0 to 1 that estimates the chance a CVE will be exploited in the wild in the next 30 days. | 15 |
| Establishment | A stable arrangement in the EU, such as an office, branch or employees working there, whose activities are connected to the processing. Under GDPR Article 3(1) it brings the processing in scope wherever the data is handled. | 08 |
| Federal Contract Information | Non-public information provided by or generated for the government under a contract | 16 |
| Flow-down clause | A contract clause that a prime contractor must pass to its subcontractors, so the same duty follows the data down the chain. | 16 |
| Framework | A voluntary structure for organizing a security program, such as NIST CSF | 04 |
| GLBA | Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, the basis for the FTC Safeguards Rule | 06 |
| Global Privacy Control | A browser signal that says a visitor opts out of sale or sharing of data | 18 |
| HIPAA | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and its privacy, security and breach rules | 06 |
| Identity provider | The service that signs people in and issues their access | 14 |
| Implementation Groups | CIS tiers (IG1, IG2, IG3) that sort safeguards by organization size and risk | 04 |
| Incident response plan | The written steps, roles and contacts for handling a security event | 11 |
| Information security | Protecting the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information and the systems that hold it. | 01 |
| Information security management system | The management system that ISO/IEC 27001 requires and certifies | 04 |
| Inherent and residual risk | Inherent risk is the exposure before controls. Residual risk is what remains after the controls and other responses are in place. | 03 |
| Insider risk | Harm from people with legitimate access, careless or deliberate | 10 |
| Joiner, mover, leaver | The three moments when a person's access must change: when they start, when their job changes, and when they go. | 14 |
| Just-in-time training | A short lesson delivered at the moment of a risky action or mistake, rather than once a year in a long session. | 10 |
| KEV catalog | CISA's Known Exploited Vulnerabilities list: flaws with a CVE ID, reliable evidence of active exploitation, and a clear fix. The best free priority list for patching. | 15 |
| Known exploited vulnerability | A flaw that CISA's catalog lists as actively used by attackers (catalog page not re-read this session) | 15 |
| Lagging indicator | A measure of outcomes after the fact | 18 |
| Leading indicator | A measure of present actions that predicts later results | 18 |
| Least privilege | Giving each person only the access the job needs | 02, 10 |
| Legal hold | A suspension of deletion for records tied to a dispute or inquiry | 17 |
| Likelihood and impact | The two scores multiplied to rank a risk | 03 |
| Managed detection and response | A service that watches alerts day and night and acts on them | 11, 18 |
| Managed security service provider | A provider that runs security tools and monitoring | 18 |
| Managed service provider | A provider that runs your IT for a recurring fee | 18 |
| Material incident | For SEC registrants, a cybersecurity incident that a reasonable investor would consider important. Determining materiality starts the four business day clock for Form 8-K Item 1.05. | 06 |
| Media sanitization | Making data on storage media infeasible to recover, by clearing, purging or destroying the media, as described in NIST SP 800-88. | 17 |
| MFA | Multi-factor authentication: proving who you are with two or more things, such as a password plus a code, app prompt or hardware key. | 02 |
| Mobile application management (MAM) | Software that protects company data inside specific apps on a personal device, and can remove that data without touching personal files. | 14 |
| Mobile device management (MDM) | Software that enrolls a whole phone or laptop, enforces settings such as encryption and screen lock, and can wipe the device. | 14 |
| Multi-factor authentication | Sign-in that needs two or more kinds of proof | 02, 14 |
| Near miss | An event that could have caused harm but did not | 11 |
| NIST CSF | The NIST Cybersecurity Framework 2.0, with six Functions and 22 Categories | 04 |
| Notification event | Under the FTC Safeguards Rule, acquisition of unencrypted customer information without the individual's authorization. Notice to the FTC is due within 30 days when it involves at least 500 consumers. | 06, 11 |
| Omnibus consumer privacy law | A state statute that gives residents rights over personal data in general (access, deletion, opt-out) and puts duties on businesses above a size or volume threshold, as opposed to a law about one sector or one kind of data. | 07 |
| Organizational Profile | A NIST CSF 2.0 tool that records the cybersecurity outcomes an organization achieves today (Current Profile) and the outcomes it has chosen to reach (Target Profile). | 03 |
| Orphaned account | An enabled account whose owner has left | 14, 18 |
| P2PE | Point-to-point encryption: encrypting card data inside the payment terminal and decrypting it only at the processor, so your network never sees clear card numbers. | 05 |
| Panel vendor | A law, forensic, notification or recovery firm pre-approved by the insurer. Using one is often a condition of coverage for response costs. | 12 |
| Passkey | A sign-in credential based on public-key cryptography that lives on a device or in a credential manager and replaces the password. It follows the FIDO/WebAuthn standard. | 14 |
| PCI DSS | The card industry's contract security standard, version 4.0.1 | 05 |
| Pen register | A device or process that records dialing, routing, addressing or signaling information, not the content of a communication. California plaintiffs have argued website tracking scripts are pen registers under Penal Code 638.51. | 08 |
| Penetration test | An authorized attempt to break in, done to find weaknesses | 15 |
| Personal information | Data that identifies or can be linked to a person, defined differently by each law | 07 |
| Phishing-resistant MFA | MFA, such as hardware keys or passkeys, that cannot be handed to a fake site | 14 |
| POA&M | Plan of action and milestones: a dated list of unmet requirements and how they will be fixed. CMMC allows one only for limited Level 2 and Level 3 items and requires closeout within 180 days. | 16 |
| Policy | A short management statement of what must or must not happen, approved by leadership and applying to everyone in scope. | 10 |
| Primary regulator | In Idaho Code 28-51-104, the regulator that enforces the breach law against a given entity: a federal regulator, the Department of Finance or Department of Insurance, or the Attorney General for everyone else. | 07 |
| Prior express consent | Under the Telephone Consumer Protection Act, the permission a caller must have before using an autodialer or a prerecorded or artificial voice to call a cell phone, and the standard for text marketing. | 06 |
| Privacy | Rules and choices about what personal information a business collects, why, how long it keeps it and who gets it. | 01 |
| Private right of action | A person's right to sue directly, without waiting for a regulator. California's CCPA allows it for data breaches, Illinois BIPA for biometrics and Washington's health data law through its consumer protection act. | 07 |
| Privileged account | An account that can change systems or see everything | 14 |
| Procedure | The step-by-step instructions for doing a task the same way each time, such as how to disable a departing employee's accounts. | 10 |
| Public record (Idaho) | Under Idaho Code 74-101, any writing about the conduct or administration of the public's business that a state or local agency prepares, owns, uses or retains. | 16 |
| QSA | Qualified Security Assessor: an outside firm approved by the PCI SSC to perform on-site PCI DSS assessments and issue a Report on Compliance. | 05 |
| Qualified Individual | The person the Safeguards Rule requires to oversee the security program | 06, 18 |
| Ransomware | Malware that locks or steals data and demands payment | 11, 12 |
| Reasonable security | The legal yardstick used in many statutes and FTC cases: safeguards appropriate to the sensitivity of the data, the size of the business and the cost and availability of tools. | 01 |
| Red Flag | A pattern, practice or activity that signals possible identity theft. The FTC Red Flags Rule requires certain creditors and financial institutions to have a written program to detect and respond to red flags. | 06 |
| Representative (Article 27) | A person or firm in an EU member state, designated in writing, that a non-EU business names as the contact point for regulators and individuals when GDPR applies to it through Article 3(2). | 08 |
| Rescission | An insurer's cancellation of a policy as if it never existed, usually because of a material misstatement on the application. | 12 |
| Residual risk | The risk left after controls are applied | 03 |
| Retention (deductible) | The amount of a covered loss the insured pays before the policy pays. | 12 |
| Retention schedule | A table of how long each record type is kept and how it is destroyed | 17 |
| Risk appetite | How much risk leadership will accept to reach its goals | 01 |
| Risk assessment (data protection impact assessment) | A written review of a data use that weighs the benefits against the risks to people and records the safeguards chosen, required by some privacy laws for higher-risk uses. | 13 |
| Risk register | A living list of risks with owners, ratings and treatment dates | 03 |
| Risk tolerance | A measurable limit on risk, such as a maximum loss or outage length, that turns appetite into something you can check. | 01 |
| RPO and RTO | Recovery point objective (how much data loss) and recovery time objective (how long down) | 12 |
| RROSH | Real risk of significant harm: the Canadian PIPEDA test for when a breach of security safeguards must be reported to the Privacy Commissioner and to the people affected. | 08 |
| SAQ | Self-Assessment Questionnaire: a PCI SSC form, in several types, that smaller merchants complete instead of a full on-site audit. | 05 |
| SBOM | Software bill of materials: a list of the components inside software | 09, 15 |
| Separation of duties | Splitting a sensitive task so one person cannot finish fraud alone | 10 |
| Shadow AI | Staff use of AI tools the company has not approved | 13 |
| Shadow IT | Software or cloud services employees sign up for and use for work without IT or management approval. | 09 |
| SIEM | Security information and event management: a system that collects logs from many sources, correlates them and raises alerts. Often part of an MDR service rather than something a small firm runs. | 11 |
| Single sign-on | One sign-in that opens many applications | 14 |
| SOC 2 | An attestation report on controls against AICPA's Trust Services Criteria | 04 |
| Spoliation | The loss, destruction or alteration of evidence that a party should have kept. | 17 |
| SPRS | Supplier Performance Risk System: the DoD system where contractors post NIST SP 800-171 self-assessment scores, CMMC statuses and annual affirmations. | 16 |
| Standard | A specific, measurable requirement that makes a policy testable, such as a minimum password length or a required encryption method. | 10 |
| Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) | Model contract terms adopted by the European Commission (Decision 2021/914) that the sender and receiver of personal data sign to make a transfer outside the EU lawful where there is no adequacy decision. | 08 |
| Statement of Applicability | The ISO 27001 document listing which controls apply and why | 04 |
| Strict liability | Liability that applies whether or not the person knew or intended the violation. OFAC applies it to sanctions violations, including ransom payments to sanctioned parties. | 11 |
| Sublimit | A lower cap inside an insurance policy for one type of loss | 12 |
| Subservice organization | A vendor that your vendor relies on to deliver part of its service, such as a cloud host. In a SOC 2 report it is either carved out of the testing or included. | 09 |
| Tabletop exercise | A talked-through rehearsal of an incident | 11 |
| Tenant | Your company's own space inside a cloud service such as Microsoft 365 | 18 |
| Third-party risk | Risk that arrives through vendors and service providers | 09 |
| Three lines model | The Institute of Internal Auditors' way of dividing risk work among operating management (first line), risk and compliance functions (second line) and independent internal audit (third line), all answering to a governing body. | 01 |
| Tokenization | Swapping a card number for a stand-in value that is useless if stolen | 05 |
| Underwriting | The insurer's judging of your risk and setting of terms | 12, 18 |
| Unfair or deceptive act or practice | The standard in Section 5 of the FTC Act. A practice is unfair if it causes or is likely to cause substantial injury to consumers that they cannot reasonably avoid and that is not outweighed by benefits. | 06 |
| vCISO | A part-time security leader engaged on retainer | 18 |
| Vendor tiering | Sorting vendors by how much harm they could cause you, so the heaviest review and the strongest contract terms go to the few that matter most. | 09 |
| Vulnerability disclosure policy | A public statement telling outsiders how to report a security flaw to you and promising not to pursue good-faith reporters. Often paired with a security.txt file. | 15 |
| Vulnerability management | Finding, ranking and fixing software and configuration weaknesses | 15 |
| Waiting period | The hours of outage before business interruption cover starts | 12 |
| WISP | Written information security program: the documented set of administrative, technical and physical safeguards that Massachusetts regulation 201 CMR 17.00 requires of anyone who holds a Massachusetts resident's personal information. | 07 |
| Zero trust | A design that checks every request instead of trusting the network | 02, 14 |
Reporting angle
Ask for the responsibility matrix from your MSP or MSSP each year and mark the blank cells. Ask for the tenant owner screenshot, the list of provider technician accounts, and the date of the last emergency account test. Ask your vCISO for the written risk register movement each quarter, with each acceptance signed by a named executive. Ask finance for the insurance evidence folder 60 days before renewal and the one-line sign-off from each technical owner. Ask the security lead for the 15 metrics in the catalog, the definition of each, and the owner. Keep each report dated, so an auditor or insurer sees a history rather than a snapshot.
Know where to report. Cyber crime goes to the FBI at ic3.gov. CISA takes voluntary reports at report@cisa.gov, through the online incident reporting form on its report page, or by phone at (888) 282-0870 (CISA Central, 24 hours), until a mandatory reporting rule takes effect. Lesson 06, citing trade reporting, says a final CIRCIA rule went to White House review on October 1, 2026 with no effective date set. If an MSP appears to be the source of a compromise, tell your insurer and the other clients you know of, since the provider may not.
Research angle
- CISA advisory AA22-131A: the MSP and customer recommendations, May 11, 2022.
- 16 CFR 314.4: Safeguards Rule elements, including the Qualified Individual, testing, service providers and board report.
- 45 CFR 164.308, 164.310 and 164.312: the HIPAA Security Rule safeguards.
- NIST CSWP 29: the Cybersecurity Framework 2.0 and its categories.
- CIS Controls v8.1 and CIS's resources page for the mapping files.
- NIST SP 800-55 Volume 1: measurement of security programs.
- NIST SP 800-171 Revision 3: requirement families and the Revision 2 supersession note.
- At-Bay InsurSec Report 2026: one insurer's claims view (vendor data).
Questions and answers
Do we need both an MSP and an MDR service?
Most firms of 50 or more people benefit from both, or from an MSP and a separate detection service. An MSP's daytime ticket queue is built for broken laptops. A detection service is built to read alerts at 3 a.m. and cut off a compromised machine. If one vendor sells both, ask who sits behind the night alerts and what they may do without calling you.
When does a company need a vCISO?
When someone has to own the program and nobody inside has the time or the skill. Signs: customers send security questionnaires the IT manager cannot answer, the insurer asks about governance, the Safeguards Rule or HIPAA requires a named responsible person, or the board wants quarterly reports. A vCISO is a leader on retainer. It is not a replacement for the people who run the tools.
Is it a conflict if our MSP also writes our security policies?
It is a risk. The provider then grades its own work. It is fine for the MSP to draft technical standards. Have someone else, an internal owner or a vCISO, approve them and check the evidence. If that is not affordable, at minimum have an executive read the monthly report against raw counts from the consoles.
How much should we spend on security?
There is no sourced standard for companies of 10 to 500 people. Use the three tiers, tie each line to a risk in your register, and compare with the 13.2 percent of IT budget reported by IANS and Artico for firms with CISOs as a sanity check only. Revisit after each incident and each renewal.
Can the same evidence serve different standards?
Often, yes. A dated MFA coverage export answers questions under several frameworks at once, as the crosswalk shows. Check that the evidence meets the stricter wording. HIPAA 164.312(d), for instance, does not name MFA, while the Safeguards Rule at 314.4(c)(5) does.
What if an application answer is only partly true?
Say so on the form. Describe the coverage, the plan and the date, attach evidence, and tell the broker. A partial answer with a record is easier to defend than a rounded one. Lesson 12 explains why the application becomes the first thing a claim reviewer reads.
How many metrics should the board see?
Six to eight, with trends. The 15 in the catalog are the manager's working set. The board needs the ones that drive a decision this quarter, plus one page of facts on incidents and risk movement.
What belongs in the evidence library?
One dated item per control area in the crosswalk: exports, screenshots, signed policies, test records, contracts, reports. Name each file with the control ID and the date. Replace items on a calendar, quarterly for fast-moving ones such as MFA and patching, annually for policies.
Hard questions
"Our MSP says it holds the global administrator account because that is how it keeps us safe. Why change that?"
Because safety and control are different things. A provider that holds the only keys can lock you out through a dispute, a mistake or its own compromise. CISA's advisory names exactly that exposure when it tells customers to restrict provider access, require MFA on provider accounts and disable accounts at contract end. Keep two emergency accounts of your own, held offline, and let the provider work through named delegated accounts. A good provider will agree. One that refuses has told you how it values your exit.
"A fractional leader at a few thousand dollars a month cannot know our business. Isn't that just a paper exercise?"
It can be, if the engagement is only policy templates. The test is output. In a quarter a working vCISO should leave behind a risk register you recognize, owner names on the high risks, a vendor tier list, a tabletop with actions and a board page. If after a quarter you have documents but no changed behavior, change the scope or change the vCISO. The same logic applies to any hire.
"Insurers just want a checklist. Why spend money on evidence when we can answer yes and move on?"
Because the answers are statements of fact that can be tested after a loss. Lesson 12 describes a dispute in which a carrier alleged that MFA answers were untrue. A dated export costs minutes to produce. A denied or reduced claim costs the loss. The Pinewood example shows a $1,900 fix against a $380,000 exposure.
"The crosswalk lets us claim compliance with eight standards from one report. Isn't that overclaiming?"
It is, if you say it that way. A crosswalk shows that one control produces evidence relevant to several standards. It does not show that you meet any of them. PCI requires an assessor or a signed attestation, SOC 2 needs an auditor, ISO 27001 needs an accredited certification body, and HIPAA needs a documented risk analysis. Describe the crosswalk internally as a way to reduce repeated work and say externally only what each standard actually certifies.
"A budget table with invented numbers is no help. Why not give us a figure?"
Because no honest figure exists for every company. The sourced anchors in this lesson are a 2024 survey percentage from firms with CISOs and list prices from lesson 02. The rest are planning estimates labeled as such. The tier method gives you a way to turn your own quotes into a number the board can approve, and to record what you chose not to fund.
Pictures, Numbers and Infographics
Verified figures used in this lesson
Lesson 13 holds the figures on breach cost, fraud losses and notification clocks. This table lists the new numbers from this lesson, with the source and how firmly it is established.
| Figure | Value | Source and date | Note |
|---|---|---|---|
| MSP advisory AA22-131A | Issued May 11, 2022 by CISA, NSA, FBI and the cyber agencies of the UK, Australia, Canada and New Zealand; baseline of at least six months of key logs | Advisory text via UK NCSC copy | Primary; CISA's own page did not load |
| Security share of IT budget | 13.2 percent in 2024, up from 8.6 percent in 2020; 750 CISOs surveyed, 681 answered budget questions | IANS Research and Artico Search, via Cybersecurity Dive, September 2024 | Secondary report of a survey; firms large enough to employ a CISO |
| vCISO retainers | $1,500 to $4,000 a month (1 to 50 staff); $3,000 to $7,000 (50 to 200); $5,000 to $12,000 (200 to 500); $200 to $400 an hour ad hoc | SideChannel guide | Vendor marketing; internally inconsistent |
| Claims frequency and severity, 2025 | Frequency up 7 percent; average severity $221,000; financial fraud 30 percent of claims at $285,000 average loss | At-Bay 2026 InsurSec Report, April 22, 2026 | One insurer's portfolio of more than 100,000 policy years |
| Ransomware in claims | Akira over 40 percent of At-Bay ransomware claims in 2025; 86 percent of Akira attacks where a SonicWall device was present | Same report | Vendor data |
| CISA Cyber Hygiene scanning | Free for governments and critical infrastructure; weekly vulnerability reports, monthly web application reports | CISA page | Primary; small businesses outside critical infrastructure not listed |
| NIST CSF 2.0 | Published February 26, 2024; 6 Functions and 22 Categories (Govern 6, Identify 3, Protect 5, Detect 2, Respond 4, Recover 2) | NIST CSWP 29 | Primary; count of categories is the sum of the table rows |
| CIS Controls | 18 Controls; 153 safeguards in v8 and v8.1 | CIS pages (names); lesson 04 (153) | Safeguard total not shown on the pages read in this session |
| ISO/IEC 27002:2022 | 93 controls: organizational 37, people 8, physical 14, technological 34 | Lesson 04; third-party list shows 93 | The standard is sold; check your licensed copy |
| PCI DSS | 12 principal requirements in six goals; critical and high patches within one month (6.3.3) | PCI DSS 4.0.1 text; third-party summary for 6.3.3 | Primary for the 12; secondary for the patch rule |
| SOC 2 | Five categories: Security, Availability, Processing Integrity, Confidentiality, Privacy; nine common criteria series, CC1 to CC9 | AICPA page; third-party list of the series | Sub-criteria numbers not re-read from AICPA's PDF |
| NIST SP 800-171 | Rev. 3 published May 2024 with 17 families; Rev. 2 listed as withdrawn May 14, 2024 | NIST pages | CMMC still pins Rev. 2 per lesson 04 |
| NIST SP 800-55 | Volumes 1 and 2 final, December 2024 | NIST CSRC | Primary |
| Safeguards Rule clocks | 30 days to FTC (500 or more consumers); disposal within two years; testing every six months; annual board report | 16 CFR 314.4(j), (c)(6), (d), (i) | Primary |
| HIPAA | 60 calendar days for breach notice; 6-year documentation retention | 45 CFR 164.404(b); 164.316(b)(2)(i) | Primary |
Picture 1: one evidence item, eight standards
Picture 2: a 12-month roadmap by workstream
Picture 3: a security metrics dashboard with sample numbers
Check yourself
1. The May 2022 joint advisory on managed service providers (AA22-131A) says contracts should address how an MSP handles administrator credentials. What does it recommend?
The advisory tells MSPs not to reuse admin credentials across multiple customers and tells customers to put that expectation in the contract. One shared credential turns a single theft into a breach of every client.
2. In the IANS Research and Artico Search survey of CISOs released in September 2024, what share of the IT budget went to security in 2024?
Cybersecurity Dive reported the IANS and Artico figures as 13.2 percent in 2024 and 8.6 percent in 2020. The sample was 750 CISOs, so it describes firms large enough to employ one. Treat it as context, not a target for a 60-person company.
3. Under 16 CFR 314.4(d)(2), a covered business without effective continuous monitoring must run vulnerability assessments at least how often?
Paragraph (d) calls for annual penetration testing and vulnerability assessments at least every six months, plus assessments after material changes, when the business does not use continuous monitoring.
4. Your insurance application says multi-factor authentication covers all remote access, but about 30 percent of accounts still lack it. What is the sound step before anyone signs?
An application is a statement of fact. The Travelers v. International Control Services dispute, described in lesson 12, turned on a claim that MFA answers were not true. A partial answer with evidence protects you better than a clean answer you cannot prove.
5. Which HIPAA Security Rule standard covers person or entity authentication, and does its text use the words multi-factor?
Section 164.312(d) requires procedures to verify that a person seeking access is the one claimed. The text does not mention multi-factor authentication, so the crosswalk lists MFA as a way to meet it, not as a literal requirement.
6. NIST finalized SP 800-55 in two volumes in December 2024. What does Volume 2 address?
Volume 1 covers identifying and selecting measures. Volume 2 covers developing a measurement program, tying results to leadership decisions.
Terms in this lesson
- MSP
- Managed service provider: an outside firm that runs part or all of your IT, such as the help desk, patching and backups, for a recurring fee.
- MSSP
- Managed security service provider: an outside firm that runs security tools and watches alerts for you. Providers use the label loosely, so read the contract for what is actually watched.
- MDR
- Managed detection and response: a service that watches endpoint and identity alerts around the clock and takes defined response actions, such as isolating a laptop.
- vCISO
- Virtual (or fractional) chief information security officer: a part-time security leader who owns strategy, policy, risk and board reporting but usually does not run your tools.
- Crosswalk
- A table that maps one control to the matching items in several standards so one piece of evidence can answer many requests.
- Leading indicator
- A measure of what you do now that predicts future results, such as the share of accounts with multi-factor authentication.
- Lagging indicator
- A measure of outcomes after the fact, such as incidents per quarter or hours to contain one.
- Underwriting
- The insurer's process of judging your risk from your application, outside scans and evidence, then setting terms and price.
Sources
- Joint advisory AA22-131A, Protecting Against Cyber Threats to Managed Service Providers and their Customers (May 11, 2022), CISA page checked 2026-10
- Same advisory, full text as hosted by the UK National Cyber Security Centre (the copy read for this lesson) checked 2026-10
- 16 CFR 314.4, FTC Safeguards Rule: elements of an information security program checked 2026-10
- 45 CFR 164.308, HIPAA administrative safeguards checked 2026-10
- 45 CFR 164.310 and 164.312, HIPAA physical and technical safeguards checked 2026-10
- 45 CFR 164.316, HIPAA documentation and six-year retention checked 2026-10
- 45 CFR 164.404, HIPAA breach notice to individuals (60 calendar days) checked 2026-10
- NIST Cybersecurity Framework 2.0 (NIST CSWP 29, February 26, 2024) checked 2026-10
- CIS Critical Security Controls v8.1 checked 2026-10
- CIS Controls Assessment Specification, safeguard lists by Control (v8 numbering) checked 2026-10
- NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 3 (May 2024) and the withdrawn Rev. 2 page checked 2026-10
- NIST SP 800-55 Vol. 1, Measurement Guide for Information Security (December 2024) checked 2026-10
- AICPA 2017 Trust Services Criteria with revised points of focus (2022) checked 2026-10
- At-Bay 2026 InsurSec Report (2025 claims data, published April 22, 2026), vendor data checked 2026-10
- Cybersecurity Dive, IANS and Artico security budget survey (September 2024) checked 2026-10
- CISA Cyber Hygiene Services (free vulnerability and web application scanning; eligibility limited) checked 2026-10
- HHS, The HIPAA Security Rule (page reviewed March 19, 2026) checked 2026-10
- Idaho Code 28-51-105, notice of security breach checked 2026-10